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Author Topic: G2a/G2c in South/Central Asia  (Read 827 times)
intrestedinhistory
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« on: May 07, 2012, 10:29:08 PM »

Where do these come from? is G2a neolithic or what ? Assimilation of Caucasians by indo-iranians?

What of G2c? Jewish admix?
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Maliclavelli
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« Reply #1 on: May 08, 2012, 06:12:30 AM »

A recent paper on Afghans has supported the theory that G2c was present amongst the Khazars and Jews took it from them. Of course Jews are saying that it was Jewish and Pashtuns took it from them, but all Jews G2c have a recent common ancestor not older than 1000 years ago, then they derive from some G2c introgressed. There are also some G2c in Italy which must be explained: from Jews? They the ancestors of Jews? Which link with Pashtuns and other G2c?
We as usual are doing scientific analyses and are searching for proofs.
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Maliclavelli


YDNA: R-S12460


MtDNA: K1a1b1e

intrestedinhistory
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« Reply #2 on: May 08, 2012, 08:24:50 AM »

G2c might have been present among the Khazars but that dooesn't mean Pashtuns got it especially since intermediate populations between Pashtuns area and elsewhere don't tend to have it. And that begs the question of where Khazars G2c comes from and its linguistic affiliation.
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Maliclavelli
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« Reply #3 on: May 08, 2012, 09:39:20 AM »

In fact, whereas the paper says that Pashtuns derive from Khazars, because it seems that Pashtuns get some Jewish rite, I agree with you, and I have written this, that probably they all derive from a third source.
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Maliclavelli


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MtDNA: K1a1b1e

intrestedinhistory
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« Reply #4 on: May 08, 2012, 11:52:06 AM »

Pashtuns do not derive from khazars. no need even discussing such a paper. if pashtuns derive from khazars so do their neighbors because they exhbit the same spectrum of G2a, L, R1a, J2a and R2a as them. A few G2c samples doesn't mean their origins change: West Asian farmers+South eurasians+indo-iranians for the most part.

Their caucasus component is a bit higher but that doesnt mean anything since iranians and anatolians have even more of it.
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